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comment by zebra2

Perhaps. I'm thinking that the comparison of income top 20% to income bottom 20% isn't really the most illustrative statistic about income inequality, yet the distinction between that ratio in the US compared to the rest of the developed world is pretty striking. But why is it so different? A small, ludicrously rich class? A super-poor class? That ratio doesn't really tell you, but there's something obviously different about the US.