I thought you started off by talking about anti-intellectualism (quoting John Cotton), and then used some examples from early 19th century history. What I'm trying to understand is why you disagreed with him in the first place, when it seemed like you were taking the same view. It seems like you further elaborated, so that your advocacy was about otherization in general, but I'm not sure if this is the same view as your first comment. I get that you're making appeals to populism being a driving factor of anti-intellectualism (or at least that anti-intellectualism is a form of populism), but what I don't understand is why this makes it so significantly different from sp00n's original comment, and why this became a point of contention. Sorry if this comes off as argumentative, by the way! You seem very knowledgeable, and I don't want it to look like I'm questioning you too much!